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A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening sore throat, fever, and difficulty swallowing. He has a muffled voice and physical examination reveals a deviated uvula to the left and trismus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous antibiotics only
- Needle aspiration
- Computed tomography of the neck
- Rapid streptococcal antigen test
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Correct Answer: B (Needle aspiration)
This patient's presentation of fever, severe sore throat, trismus, muffled "hot potato" voice, and uvular deviation is classic for a peritonsillar abscess. The most appropriate next step in management is drainage via needle aspiration or incision and drainage, along with empiric antibiotic therapy.